If the mean and the variance of a binomial variate X are 2 and 1 respectively, then the probability that X takes a value greater than 1 is equal to.....
A
11/16
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B
5/16
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C
9/16
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D
7/16
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Solution
The correct option is A11/16 Here, np=2,npq=1 ∴p=q=12,n=4 Therefore P(X>1)=1−P(X=0)−P(X=1) =1−4C0(12)4−4C1(12)4=1116