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Question

If the system of equations ax+by+c=0;bx+cy+a=0;cx+ay+b=0 has a non-trivial solutions, the system of equation,

(b+c)x+(c+a)y+(a+b)z=0;(c+a)x+(a+b)y+(b+c)z=0;(a+b)x+(b+c)y+(c+a)z=0
has

A
Only one solution
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B
No solution
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C
Infinite number of solution
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D
None of these
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Solution

The correct option is C Infinite number of solution
For existence of a non-trivial solution of the

first system ∣ ∣abcbcacab∣ ∣=0

(a+b+c)∣ ∣1bc1ca1ab∣ ∣=0

∣ ∣1bc1ca1ab∣ ∣=0 or (a+b+c)=0

∣ ∣1bc0cbac0abbc∣ ∣=0 or (a+b+c)=0

cbacabbc=0 or

(a+b+c)=0 ...(1)

The second system will have a non-trivial solution if we can prove that

=∣ ∣b+cc+aa+bc+aa+bb+ca+bb+cc+a∣ ∣=0

Now, =2(a+b+c)∣ ∣1c+aa+b1a+bb+c1b+cc+a∣ ∣

=2(a+b+c)∣ ∣1c+aa+b0bcca0bacb∣ ∣

=2(a+b+c)bccabacb

=2(a+b+c)cbacabbc=0 (using equation (1))

The second system will have a non-trivial solution.

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