wiz-icon
MyQuestionIcon
MyQuestionIcon
2
You visited us 2 times! Enjoying our articles? Unlock Full Access!
Question

If x<0, then prove that cos1x=πsin11x2.

Open in App
Solution

We have for x>0, cos1(x)=πcos1x.
The given problem is equivalent to the above i.e. for x<0, cos1x=πcos1x.
Now the proof for x>0, cos1(x)=πcos1x, is as follows
Let, cos1(x)=z
or, x=cosz
or, x=cosz
or, x=cos(πz)
or, πz=cos1x
or, cos1(x)=πcos1x
or, cos1(x)=πsin11x2 [Since cos1x=sin11x2 for x>0..]
So for x>0 we have cos1(x)=πsin11x2
or, for x<0 we have cos1(x)=πsin11x2.

flag
Suggest Corrections
thumbs-up
0
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
similar_icon
Related Videos
thumbnail
lock
Basic Inverse Trigonometric Functions
MATHEMATICS
Watch in App
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
CrossIcon