If x≥1 and ∫sin(cot−1√x2−1)dx=f(x)+k, where f(1)=0, then the value of f(e2) is equal to
(Here, k is a constant of integration.)
A
12
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
B
2
Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
C
−2
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
D
1
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
Open in App
Solution
The correct option is B2 Since cot−1√x2−1=sin−11x ∴sin(cot−1√x2−1)=sin(sin−11x) ⇒sin(cot−1√x2−1)=1x
Now, ∫sin(cot−1√x2−1)dx =∫1xdx=lnx+k ∴f(x)=lnx ⇒f(e2)=2