If xsin(yx)dy=[ysin(yx)−x]dx,x>0andy(1)=π2 then the value of cos(yx) is
A
1
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B
logx
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C
e
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D
0
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Solution
The correct option is Blogx sin(yx)dydx=yxsinyx−1⇒dydx=yxsinyx−1sinyxLetyx=t⇒dydx=t+xdtdx⇒t+xdtdx=t−1sint⇒−∫sintdt=∫dxx⇒cost=logx+c⇒cosyx=logx+cy(1)=π2⇒cosπ2=log1+c⇒c=0⇒cos(yx)=logx