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Question

If y=(cos−1x)2, then (1−x2)y2−xy1−2 is

A
0
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B
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C
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Solution

The correct option is A 0
First finding the differentiation of cos1(x) using first principle
Let y = cos1(x)
x = cos(y)
df(y)dy = limh0f(y+h)f(y)h
dxdy = limh0cos(y+h)cos(y)h
dxdy = limh02sin(y+y+h2)sin(yyh2)h
Since, cos(A)cos(B)=2sin(A+B2)sin(BA2)
dxdy = limh02sin(y+h2)sin(h2)h
By using limh0sin(h)h=1, we get
dxdy = sin(y)
Using sin(a)=1cos2(a)
And x = cos(y)
we get:
dxdy = 1x2
So we have dydx = 11x2
So Differentiation of cos1(x) is known to us.
Now using the formula of Differentiation:
If y=(f(x))n
Than dydx=nf(x)(f(x))n1
we will also use d(f(x)g(x))x=g(x)f(x)f(x)g(x)(g(x))2
Now we are ready to differentiate y=(cos1(x))2
y=2cos1(x)1x2
Now Differentiating y
y"=2+yx1x2
after rearrangement we will get y"(1x2)yx2=0
which is our final asnwer

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