The correct option is
A 0First finding the differentiation of cos−1(x) using first principle
Let y′ = cos−1(x)
x′ = cos(y′)
df(y′)dy′ = limh→0f(y′+h)−f(y′)h
dxdy′ = limh→0cos(y′+h)−cos(y′)h
dxdy′ = limh→02sin(y′+y′+h2)sin(y′−y′−h2)h
Since, cos(A)−cos(B)=2sin(A+B2)sin(B−A2)
dxdy′ = limh→02sin(y′+h2)sin(−h2)h
By using limh→0sin(h)h=1, we get
dxdy′ = −sin(y′)
Using sin(a)=√1−cos2(a)
And x = cos(y′)
we get:
dxdy′ = −√1−x2
So we have dy′dx = −1√1−x2
So Differentiation of cos−1(x) is known to us.
Now using the formula of Differentiation:
If y=(f(x))n
Than dydx=nf′(x)(f(x))n−1
we will also use d(f(x)g(x))x=g(x)f′(x)−f(x)g′(x)(g(x))2
Now we are ready to differentiate y=(cos−1(x))2
y′=−2cos−1(x)√1−x2
Now Differentiating y′
y"=2+y′x1−x2
after rearrangement we will get y"(1−x2)−y′x−2=0
which is our final asnwer