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Question

If y=(tanx)(tanx)tanx, then at x=π4,dydx is equal to

A
0
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B
3
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C
2
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Solution

The correct option is C 2
y=(tanx)(tanx)(tanx)
We have to find dydx at x=Π4.
Now consider:
y=f(x)g(x)
ln(y)=g(x)lnf(x)
1ydydx=g(x)f1(x)f(x)+g1(x)lnf(x)
dydx=y[g(x)f1(x)f(x)+g1(x)lnf(x)]
dydx=f(x)g(x)[g1(x)lnf(x)+g(x)f1(x)f(x)]
So, We have
y=(tanx)(tanx)tanx
Where f(x)=tan(x)
f1(x)=sec2x
g(x)=(tanx)tanx
g1(x)=(tanx)tanx⎢ ⎢sec2xln(tan(x))+tan(x)sec2xtanx⎥ ⎥
Now, tan(Π4)=1 and sec(Π/4)=2.
f(Π/4)=1
f1(Π/4)=2
g(Π/4)=1
g1(Π/4)=1(2ln(1)+2)=2
dydx at Π/4 is
dydx=f(Π/4)g(Π/4)⎢ ⎢g1(Π/4)ln(f(Π/4))+g(Π/4)f1(Π/4)f(Π/4)⎥ ⎥
dydx=1[2ln(1)+1×2]=2
dydx=2.

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