The correct option is A 1038
For d.c.machines;
Hysteresis losses, Ph=KhB1.6mf .....(i)
Eddy current losses, Pe=KeB2mf2 ....(ii)
As we know that in the dc machine the induced emf and induced current in armature winding is alternating with frequency:
f=PN120
or, f∝N ....(iii)
From equation (i),(ii) and (iii), we can get,
Ph=K1N
Pe=K2N2
At, N=1800 rpm;
Ph=400 W
Now, 400=K1×1800
K1=29W/rpm
Similarly, N=1800 rpm;
Pe=180 W
180=K2×(1800)2
K2=180(1800)2=5.55×10−5W/(rpm)2
Total iron loss, Pi=400+180=580W
At the speed N2;
The iron losses, P′i=290 W
P′i=K1N2+K2N22
290=29N2+5.55×10−5N22
or, 5.55×10−5N22+0.222 N2−290=0
Solving, we get
N2=1037.30 or −5037.30 rpm
only valid speed is;
N2=1037.30≈1038 rpm