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Byju's Answer
Standard XII
Mathematics
Property 1
Integrate: ∫...
Question
Integrate:
∫
∞
0
x
tan
−
1
x
(
1
+
x
2
)
2
d
x
equals ?
A
π
/
2
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B
π
/
6
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C
π
/
4
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D
π
/
8
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Solution
The correct option is
D
π
/
8
We have,
∫
∞
0
x
tan
−
1
x
(
1
+
x
2
)
2
d
x
.
.
.
(
1
)
Let
t
a
n
−
1
x
=
z
⇒
x
=
t
a
n
z
⇒
d
x
1
+
x
2
=
d
z
When
x
=
0
then
z
=
0
and when
x
=
∞
then
z
=
π
2
Now,
(
1
)
becomes
∫
π
2
0
z
t
a
n
z
(
1
+
t
a
n
2
z
)
d
z
=
∫
π
2
0
z
s
i
n
z
c
o
s
z
d
z
=
1
2
∫
π
2
0
z
(
2
s
i
n
z
c
o
s
z
)
d
z
=
1
2
∫
π
2
0
z
s
i
n
(
2
z
)
d
z
[
∵
2
s
i
n
A
c
o
s
A
=
s
i
n
2
A
]
.
.
.
(
2
)
Let
2
z
=
t
⇒
2
d
z
=
d
t
⇒
d
z
=
1
2
d
t
When
z
=
0
then
t
=
0
and when
z
=
π
2
then
t
=
π
Now,
(
2
)
becomes,
1
2
∫
π
0
t
2
s
i
n
(
t
)
1
2
d
t
=
1
8
∫
π
0
t
s
i
n
(
t
)
d
t
=
1
8
[
t
∫
s
i
n
(
t
)
d
t
]
π
0
−
1
8
∫
π
0
[
d
d
t
.
t
∫
s
i
n
(
t
)
]
d
t
=
1
8
[
−
t
c
o
s
(
t
)
]
π
0
+
1
8
∫
π
0
c
o
s
(
t
)
d
t
=
1
8
[
−
π
c
o
s
(
π
)
+
0
]
+
1
8
[
s
i
n
(
t
)
]
π
0
=
1
8
π
+
1
8
(
s
i
n
π
−
s
i
n
0
)
=
π
8
+
0
=
π
8
So,
D
is the correct option.
Suggest Corrections
0
Similar questions
Q.
If
A
=
1
π
⎡
⎢ ⎢ ⎢ ⎢
⎣
sin
−
1
(
π
x
)
tan
−
1
(
π
x
)
sin
−
1
(
π
x
)
tan
−
1
(
π
x
)
⎤
⎥ ⎥ ⎥ ⎥
⎦
,
B
=
1
π
⎡
⎢ ⎢ ⎢ ⎢
⎣
−
cos
−
1
(
π
x
)
tan
−
1
(
π
x
)
sin
−
1
(
π
x
)
−
tan
−
1
(
π
x
)
⎤
⎥ ⎥ ⎥ ⎥
⎦
then
A
−
B
is equal to
Q.
If
0
≤
x
≤
π
2
and
81
s
i
n
2
x
+
81
c
o
s
2
x
=
30
then x is equal to