The correct option is B (N−K+1)Nk
n= the total number of ways of distributing k balls over N cells =Nk
Now we find the favorable no .of ways .K adjacent cells out of
N can be chosen in N-K+1ways.
For if we denote the N .cells by C1,C2,C3,⋯,CN
then the following groupings of K consecutive cells are possible.
C1C2⋯⋯CkC2C3⋯⋯Ck+1C3C4⋯⋯Ck+2
CN−K,CN−K+1,....CN−1, CN−K+1,CN−K+2,....CN.
Now k balls can be distributed over each of these groups of k consecutive cells in K! ways.
Hence m= the favourable no .of ways =(N−K+1)K!
∴ The required probability =(N−K+1)Nk