Let A = {−1, 0, 1, 2}, B = {−4, −2, 0, 2} and f, g: A → B be functions defined by f(x) = x² − x, x ∈ A and. Are f and g equal?

Justify your answer. (Hint: One may note that two function f: A → B and g: A → B such that f(a) = g(a) &mnForE;a ∈A, are called equal functions).

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Solution

It is given that A = {−1, 0, 1, 2}, B = {−4, −2, 0, 2}.

Also, it is given that f, g: A → B are defined by f(x) = x² − x, x ∈ A and.

It is observed that:

Hence, the functions f and g are equal.

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Let A = {−1, 0, 1, 2}, B = {−4, −2, 0, 2} and f, g: A → B be functions defined by f(x) = x2 − x, x ∈ A and. Are f and g equal? Justify your answer. (Hint: One may note that two function f: A → B and g: A → B such that f(a) = g(a) &mnForE;a ∈A, are called equal functions).

It is given that A = {−1, 0, 1, 2}, B = {−4, −2, 0, 2}. Also, it is given that f, g: A → B are defined by f(x) = x2 − x, x ∈ A and. It is observed that: Hence, the functions f and g are equal.

Let A = {−1, 0, 1, 2}, B = {−4, −2, 0, 2} and f, g: A → B be functions defined by f(x) = x² − x, x ∈ A and. Are f and g equal?

Justify your answer. (Hint: One may note that two function f: A → B and g: A → B such that f(a) = g(a) &mnForE;a ∈A, are called equal functions).

It is given that A = {−1, 0, 1, 2}, B = {−4, −2, 0, 2}.

Also, it is given that f, g: A → B are defined by f(x) = x² − x, x ∈ A and.

It is observed that:

Hence, the functions f and g are equal.