Question

Let $A=R-\left\{3\right\},B=R-\left\{1\right\}$ and $f:A\to B$ defined by $f\left(x\right)=\frac{x-2}{x-3}$ Is $f$ bijective ?
If yes enter 1 else enter 0

• A. True
• B. False

Answer 1

The correct option is B False

As monotonic and range $=$ Codomain $\Rightarrow$ Bijective