wiz-icon
MyQuestionIcon
MyQuestionIcon
1
You visited us 1 times! Enjoying our articles? Unlock Full Access!
Question

Let Δ,{,} be such that pq((pΔq)r) is a tautology. Then (pq)Δr is logically equivalent to:

A
(pr)Δq
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
B
(pr)q
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
C
(pΔr)q
Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
D
(pΔr)q
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
Open in App
Solution

The correct option is C (pΔr)q
Case-I

If is same as

Then (pq)((pΔq)r) is equivalent to (pq) ((pΔq)r) is equivalent to ((pq)(pΔq))((p q) r

Which cannot be a tautology

For both Δ (i.e. or )

Case-II

If is same as

Then (pq)((pΔq)r) is equivalent to (pq)(pΔq)r which can be a tautology if Δ is also same as .

Hence both Δ and are same as v. Now (pq)Δr is equivalent to (pqr).

flag
Suggest Corrections
thumbs-up
5
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
similar_icon
Related Videos
thumbnail
lock
4 Sides and 1 Diagonal
MATHEMATICS
Watch in App
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
CrossIcon