wiz-icon
MyQuestionIcon
MyQuestionIcon
1
You visited us 1 times! Enjoying our articles? Unlock Full Access!
Question

Let f(x)=lnmx(m>0) and g(x)=px. Then the equation |f(x)|=g(x) has only one solution for

A
0<p<me
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
B
p<em
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
C
0<p<em
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
D
p>me
Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
Open in App
Solution

The correct option is D p>me
Let P(h,k) be a point on f(x)=lnmx
then, k=lnmh
dydx at point P =1h
Equation of tangent at point P L1:yk=(xh)h
Since, it passes through origin
Therefore, k=1 & h=e/m
and L1:y=x/h L1:y=mx/e
From the figure: |f(x)|=g(x) have one solution when slope of g(x) is greater than slope of L1
Therefore, p>m/e

Ans: D

216378_130185_ans.jpg

flag
Suggest Corrections
thumbs-up
0
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
similar_icon
Related Videos
thumbnail
lock
Geometrical Interpretation of a Derivative
MATHEMATICS
Watch in App
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
CrossIcon