Let ∫f′(x)g(x)−g′(x)f(x)(f(x)+g(x))√f(x)g(x)−(g(x))2dx=√mtan−1(√f(x)−g(x)ng(x))+C, where m,n∈N,C is arbitrary constant of integration and g(x)>0. Then the value of (m2+n2) is
A
1
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B
6
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C
4
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D
8
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Solution
The correct option is D8 Let I=∫f′(x)g(x)−g′(x)f(x)(f(x)+g(x))√f(x)g(x)−(g(x))2dx