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Question

Let f(x+y2)=f(x)+f(y)2 for all real x and y. If fā€²(0) exists and equals to āˆ’1 and f(0)=1, then fā€²(2) is equal to

A
1
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B
1
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C
0
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D
8
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Solution

The correct option is B 1
Since f(x+y2)=f(x)+f(y)2
Replacing x by 2x and y by 0, then f(x)=f(2x)+f(0)2
f(2x)+f(0)=2f(x)f(2x)2f(x)=f(0)
Now, f(x)=limh0f(x+h)f(x)h
=limh0⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪f(2x+2h2)f(x)h⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪
=limh0⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪f(2x)+f(2h)2f(x)h⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪
=limh0⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪f(2x)+f(2h)2f(x)2h⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪
=limh0{f(2h)f(0)2h}
=f(0)
=1xR

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