wiz-icon
MyQuestionIcon
MyQuestionIcon
1
You visited us 1 times! Enjoying our articles? Unlock Full Access!
Question

Let f(x+y2)=f(x)+f(y)2 for all real x and y. If fā€²(0) exists and equals to āˆ’1 and f(0)=1, then fā€²(2) is equal to

A
1
No worries! Weā€˜ve got your back. Try BYJUā€˜S free classes today!
B
1
Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
C
0
No worries! Weā€˜ve got your back. Try BYJUā€˜S free classes today!
D
8
No worries! Weā€˜ve got your back. Try BYJUā€˜S free classes today!
Open in App
Solution

The correct option is B 1
Since f(x+y2)=f(x)+f(y)2
Replacing x by 2x and y by 0, then f(x)=f(2x)+f(0)2
f(2x)+f(0)=2f(x)f(2x)2f(x)=f(0)
Now, f(x)=limh0f(x+h)f(x)h
=limh0⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪f(2x+2h2)f(x)h⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪
=limh0⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪f(2x)+f(2h)2f(x)h⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪
=limh0⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪f(2x)+f(2h)2f(x)2h⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪
=limh0{f(2h)f(0)2h}
=f(0)
=1xR

flag
Suggest Corrections
thumbs-up
4
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
CrossIcon