The correct option is B f′′(c)=0 for some c∈R
f(x) is twice continuous and differentiable,
f(0)=f(1)=f′(0)=0
So the function satisfies all the conditions of Rolle's theorem
Therefore,
f′(a)=f(1)−f(0)1=0, for some a∈(0,1)
So f′(a)=f′(0)=0
The function f′(x) satisfies all the conditions of Rolle's theorem in x∈(0,a)
Therefore,
f′′(k)=f′(a)−f′(0)a=0
For some k∈(0,a)