Let f:R→R be a twice continuously differentiable function such that f(0)=f(1)=f′(0)=0. Then
A
f′(0)=0
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B
f′′(c)=0 for some c∈R
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C
if c≠0, then f′′(c)=0
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D
f′(x)>0 for all x≠0
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Solution
The correct option is Bf′′(c)=0 for some c∈R f(x) is continuous and differentiable f(0)=f(1)=0⇒ by rolle's theorem f′(a)=0,a belongs to (0,1) given f′(0)=0 by rolles theorem f′′(0)=0 for some c , c belongs to (0,a) Therefore Answer is B