Let f(x)=a0+a1x+a2x2+...+anxn=...and f(x)1−x=b0+b1x+b2x2+...+bnxn+..., then
A
bn+bn−1=an
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B
bn−bn−1=an+1
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C
bnbn−1=an
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D
none of these
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Solution
The correct option is D none of these f(x)=a0+a1x+a2x2.. f(x)(1−x)−1=(1+x+x2..∞)(a0+a1x+a2x2...) =(a0+(a0+a1)x+(a0+a1+a2)x2...) Comparing coefficients, we get b0=a0 b1=a0+a1 b2=a0+a1+a2 : : Hence bn+1−bn=an+1