The correct option is D f′′(x)=2 for some x∈(1,3)
Let g(x)=f(x)−x2 is continuous and differentiable in given interval
Now, g(1)=0,g(2)=0,g(3)=0 [∵f(1)=1,f(2)=4,f(3)=9]
From Rolle's theorem on g(x):
g′(x)=0 for at least x∈(1,2).
Let g′(c1)=0 where c1∈(1,2)
similarly,
g(x)=0 for at least one x∈(2,3).
Let g′(c2)=0 where c2∈(2,3)
∴g′(c1)=g′(c2)=0
By rolle's theorem on g′(x):
g′′(x)=0 for at least one x∈(c1,c2)
⇒f′′(x)−2=0
∴f′′(x)=2 for some x∈(1,3)