Let f′(x)=ex2 and f(0)=10. If A<f(1)<B can be concluded from the mean value theorem, then the largest value of (A−B) equals
A
e
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B
1−e
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C
e−1
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D
1+e
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Solution
The correct option is B1−e Applying LMVT in [0,1] to the function y=f(x), we get f′(c)=f(1)−f(0)1, for some c∈(0,1) ⇒ec2=f(1)−f(0)1 ⇒f(1)−10=ec2 for some c∈(0,1) But 1<ec2<e in (0,1) ⇒1<f(1)−10<e ⇒11<f(1)<10+e ⇒A=11,B=10+e ⇒A−B=1−e