Let f(x)=xn, n being a non - negative integer . The number of values of n for which f′(p+q)=f′(p)+f′(q) is valid for all p,q>0 is :
A
0
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B
1
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C
2
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D
none
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Solution
The correct option is C2 f(p+q)=(p+q)n ⇒f′(p+q)=n(p+q)n−1 ⇒f′(p)=n(p)n−1 ⇒f′(q)=n(q)n−1 Using the binomial expansion we can see that the equation will be satisfied exactly 2 times.