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Question

Let g is the inverse function of f and f′(x)=x10(1+x2).If g(2)=a, then g′(2) is equal to

A
a210
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B
1+a2a10
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C
a210
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D
1+a10a2
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Solution

The correct option is D 1+a2a10
Given that g is the inverse function of f

Therefore, f(g(x))=x

differentiating the above equation we get

f(g(x))g(x)=1 ------(1)

Given that f(x)=x101+x2 and g(2)=a

Therefore, f(g(x))=(g(x))101+(g(x))2

f(g(2))=(g(2))101+(g(2))2

f(g(2))=a101+a2 ------(2)

for x=2, eqn (1) becomes
f(g(2))g(2)=1 ------(3)

substituting (2) in (3) we get

a101+a2g(2)=1

g(2)=1+a2a10

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