CameraIcon
CameraIcon
SearchIcon
MyQuestionIcon
MyQuestionIcon
1
You visited us 1 times! Enjoying our articles? Unlock Full Access!
Question

Let (1+x)36=a0+a1x+a2x2+...a36x36. Then
a0+a3+a6+....+a36 is equal to

A
23(235+1)
Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
B
235
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
C
2(235+1)
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
D
None of these
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
Open in App
Solution

The correct option is A 23(235+1)
We have
a0+a1+a2x2+....+a36x36=(1+x)36...(i)

Putting x=1.ω,ω2 successively, we get

(a0+a3+a6+....+a36)+(a1+a4+a7+.....+a34)+(a2+a5+.....+a35)=236......(ii)
(a0+a3+a6+....+a36)+ω(a1+a4+a7+.....+a34)+ω2(a2+a5+.....+a35)=1......(iii) [ω3=1]
(a0+a3+a6+....+a36)+ω2(a1+a4+a7+.....+a34)+ω(a2+a5+.....+a35)=1.....(iv)

Adding Eqs. (i), (ii), (iv) we get

3(a0+a3+a6+....+a36)=2(235+1) [1+ω+ω2=0]

a0+a3+a6+....+a36=23(235+1)

flag
Suggest Corrections
thumbs-up
0
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
similar_icon
Related Videos
thumbnail
lock
Geometric Progression
MATHEMATICS
Watch in App
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
CrossIcon