Let p,q, and r be any three logical statements. Which of the following is true?
∼(p ∧∼q)= ∼p ∧ q
∼(p ∨∼q)= ∼p ∧ q
∼(p ∧∼q)= ∼p ∧∼q
∼(p ∧∼q)=p ∧ q
Only option C is correct. It is a direct application of Demorgan's law. ∼(p ∨∼q)=∼p ∧∼(∼q)=∼p ∧q