Let p(x) be a polynomial such that p(x) - p'(x)=xn , where n is a positive integer. Then p(0) equals.
A
n!
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B
(n-1)!
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C
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D
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Solution
The correct option is A n! Let P(x)=a0xn+a1xn−1+a2xn−2....an=∑nr=0arxn−rP1(x)=∑n−1r=0ar(n−r)xn−r−1P(x)−P1(x)=a0xn+∑nr−1{ar−ar+(n−r+1)}xn−r=xnSo,a0=1andar=ar−1(n−r+1)arar−1=n−r+1Now,P(0)=an=anan−1.an−1an−2.....a2a1a1a0.a0=(1×2......n)=n!