Let f:x→y be an invertible function.
Also, suppose f has two inverses (say g1 and g2)
Then, for all y ϵ Y, we have:
fog1(y)=IY(y)=fog2(y)
⇒f(g1(y))=f(g2(y))
⇒g1(y)=g2(y) [f is invertible ⇒f is one - one]
⇒g1=g2 [g is one - one]
Hence, f has a unique inverse.