Question

Magnetic potential at a point due to magnetic dipole moment $M$ is proportional to:

• A. $r$
• B. $\frac{1}{r}$
• C. $r^2$
• D. $\frac{1}{r^2}$

Answer 1

Answer: (D)

$\frac{1}{r^2}$

Solution: As we know that,

magnetic potential at a point due to magnetic dipole moment M is,

$V=\frac{{\mu }_0}{4\pi }\times \frac{M\times cos\theta }{r^2}$

therefore, we can conclude that,

$V\propto \frac{1}{r^2}$

hence,

The correct opt: D