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Question

Mark the correct answer in each of the following:
The contrapositive of the statement ~ p (p ~q) is
(a) p ⇒ (~ p ∨ q)
(b) p (p q)
(c) p (~ p q)
(d) (~p q) p

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Solution

For given statement;
∼p ⇒ (p∧ ∼q)
has contrapositive from given by
∼(pq) ⇒ (p)
i.e. (
p∨ (q)) ⇒ p (By De-Morgan's law)
i.e. (
p ∨ q) ⇒ p

Hence, the correct answer is option D.

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