wiz-icon
MyQuestionIcon
MyQuestionIcon
1
You visited us 1 times! Enjoying our articles? Unlock Full Access!
Question

If f(x,y)=1x2+1xy+logxlogyx2+y2, then xfx+yfy is equal to

A
0
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
B
f
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
C
2f
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
D
2f
Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
Open in App
Solution

The correct option is D 2f
Given,
f(x,y)=1x2+1xy+logxlogyx2+y2
So, by partially differentiating the function w.r.t x and multiplying with x, we get,
xfx=2x21xy+(x2+y2)(logxlogy)(2x2)(x2+y2)2
similiarly, if we partially differentiate w.r.t y and multiply it with y, we get,
yfy=1xy+(x2+y2)(logxlogy)(2y2)(x2+y2)2
Adding both the equations we get,
xfx+yfy=2x22xy(logxlogy)(2x2+2y2)(x2+y2)2=2x22xy2(logxlogy)(x2+y2)2=2f

flag
Suggest Corrections
thumbs-up
1
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
similar_icon
Related Videos
thumbnail
lock
Inverse of a Function
MATHEMATICS
Watch in App
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
CrossIcon