An oscillating particle possess both types of energies : Potential as well as kinetic. It possesses potential energy on account of its displacement from the equilibrium position.
Potential energy : Consider a particle of mass m executing S.H.M. Let x be its displacement from the equilibrium position at any instant t. Since in S.H.M. the force F acting upon the particle is proportional to and opposite to the displacement x, we have
F=−kx
Where, the constant k gives the force per unit displacement x. The force can also be express in terms of potential energy U of the particle as :
F=−dUdx
Thus, dUdx=kx
On integrating, we get
U=12kx2+C
Where C is a constant. If we assume the potential energy zero in the equilibrium position, i.e.,
If U=0 at x=0, then C=0.
Therefore, U=12kx2
(P.E.) U=12mω2x2
Hence from here it is clear that the potential energy of a particle doing S.H.M. is directly proportional to the square of the displacement (P.E. ∝x2).
(a) Potential energy at mean position : At mean position, velocity of a particle executing S.H.M. is maximum and displacement is minimum i.e., x=0
P.E. =12mω2x2=0
(b) Potential energy at extreme position : At extreme position, velocity of a particle executing S.H.M. is minimum and displacement is maximum, i.e., x=±a
P.E. =12ka2=12mω2a2
Given : n1=100r.p.m.
=10060=1.66r.p.s.
m=20gm=2×10−2kg
h=r=5cm=0.05m
I1= Moment of inertia of the disclabout its axis is =2×10−4kgm2
I2= Moment of inertia of the disc about same axis with the wax.
To find : n2= ?
From formula,
I2=I1+mr2 [from parallel axis theorem]
I1ω1=I2ω2
I1(2πn1)=(I1+mr2)(2πn2)
I1n1=(I1+mr2)n2 [∵2π is cancelled out]
n2=I1n1I1+mr2
n2=2×10−4×1.662×10−4+(2×10−2×0.05×0.05)
=2×10−4×1.662×10−4+0.5×10−4
=2×10−4×1.662.5×10−4=1.28≅1r.p.s.
n2=1r.p.s.