Question 3 (i)
Prove that 1√2 is irrational.
Let's assume that 1√2 is a rational number.
So, we can write this number as
1√2=ab
Here, a and b are two co prime numbers and b is not equal to 0.
Multiply by √2 both sides we get,
1=a√2b
Now multiply by b,
b=a√2
Divide by a we get,
ba=√2 ---(i)
Here, a and b are integers, that means ba is a rational number. Then, √2 should also be a rational number as ba=√2.
But, we know that √2 is an irrational number.
So, our assumption is wrong.
Hence, 1√2 is an irrational number.