Question

Question 55
If $a\ne 0$, the multiplicative inverse of $\frac{a}{b}is\frac{b}{a}$

Answer 1

True
If a = 0, then multiplicative inverse of $\frac{a}{b}$ is not defined
So, if $a\ne 0$, then multiplicative inverse of $\frac{a}{b}$ is $\frac{b}{a}$