CameraIcon
CameraIcon
SearchIcon
MyQuestionIcon
MyQuestionIcon
1
You visited us 1 times! Enjoying our articles? Unlock Full Access!
Question

If 1a1, then sin1(a)+cos1(a) is equal to

A
1
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
B
π
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
C
π2
Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
Open in App
Solution

The correct option is C π2
Let sin1(a)=yBefore assuming such things we have to check certain conditions. Given that 1a1Thus we can assume sin1(a)=y,as the domain of sin1(x) can be [1,1].So,sin1(a)=y ;π2yπ2or, a=sin(y)Also,a=cos(π2y)π2y=cos1(a) (We could write this equation because a ϵ[1,1]yϵ[0,π])π2=cos1(a)+y =sin1(a)+cos1(a)=π2 (Since, sin1(a)=y)

flag
Suggest Corrections
thumbs-up
0
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
similar_icon
Related Videos
thumbnail
lock
Extrema
MATHEMATICS
Watch in App
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
CrossIcon