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Question

Show that f: [āˆ’1, 1] ā†’ R, given byis one-one. Find the inverse of the function f: [āˆ’1, 1] ā†’ Range f.

(Hint: For y āˆˆRange f, y =, for some x in [āˆ’1, 1], i.e.,)

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Solution

f: [āˆ’1, 1] ā†’ R is given as

Let f(x) = f(y).

āˆ“ f is a one-one function.

It is clear that f: [āˆ’1, 1] ā†’ Range f is onto.

āˆ“ f: [āˆ’1, 1] ā†’ Range f is one-one and onto and therefore, the inverse of the function:

f: [āˆ’1, 1] ā†’ Range f exists.

Let g: Range f ā†’ [āˆ’1, 1] be the inverse of f.

Let y be an arbitrary element of range f.

Since f: [āˆ’1, 1] ā†’ Range f is onto, we have:

Now, let us define g: Range f ā†’ [āˆ’1, 1] as

āˆ“gof = and fog =

fāˆ’1 = g

ā‡’


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