Question

Simplify the following expression :

$\frac{\frac{1}{2}\times (0\times (\frac{696}{142}\times \frac{989}{789}\times \frac{456}{989}\times \frac{142}{696}\left)\right)+\frac{5}{6}\times 9\times 0}{(\frac{989}{456}+\frac{498}{981}+\frac{598}{251}+\frac{198}{256})\times 989}$

• A. $\frac{98192}{59689}$
• B. $\frac{45981}{40899}$
• C. $1$
• D. $0$

Answer 1

The correct option is D

$0$

The expression has '$0$' multiplied to it on the numerator, and anything multiplied to '$0$' is '$0$'.