Statement 1: ∼(p↔∼q) is equivalent to p↔q Statement 2: ∼(p↔∼q) is tautology. Then which of the following statements is correct
Let p be the statement “x is an irrational number”, q be the statement “y is a transcendental number”, and r be the statement “x is a rational number if and only if y is a transcendental number”. Statement-1 : r is equivalent to either q or p Statememt-2 : r is equivalent to (p↔∼q)
Choose the correct option.
Statement 1:(p ∧∼ q)∧(∼ p∧q) is a fallacy.
Statement 2:(p⇒q)⇔(∼ q⇒∼ p) is a tautology.