Suppose a population $A$ has $100$ observations $101, 102, . . . ., 200$ and another population $B$ has $100$ observations $151, 152, . . . . ., 250$ .
If $V_{A}$ and $V_{B}$ represent the variances of the two populations, respectively, then $\frac{V_{A}}{V_{B}}$ is

1

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\frac{4}{9}

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\frac{9}{4}

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\frac{1}{3}

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Solution

The correct option is A $1$
The variance is independent of change of origin. Therefore, The population $A$ and the population $B$ have the same variance.

Hence, $V_{A} = V_{B}$

$⟹ \frac{V_{A}}{V_{B}} = 1$

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Similar questions

Suppose a population A has 100 observations 101, 102, . . . . 200 and another population B has 100 observations 151, 152, . . . . 250. If $V_{A}$ and $V_{B}$ represent the variances of the two populations, respectively then $\frac{V_{A}}{V_{B}}$ is

Q. Suppose a population

A

has 100 observations

101, 102, . . . ., 200

and another population

B

has 100 observations

151, 152, 153, . . . ., 250

. If

V_{A}

and

V_{B}

represent the variances of the two populations respectively, then

\frac{V_{A}}{V_{B}}

Q. Suppose a population A has 100 observations 101, 102,……200 and another population B has 100 observation 151, 152….., 250. If

V_{A}, V_{B}

represent the variances of the two populations respectively, then

\frac{V_{A}}{V_{B}}

is:

Suppose a population A has 100 observations 101, 102,……200 and another population B has 100 observation 151, 152….., 250. If $V_{A}, V_{B}$ represent the variances of the two populations respectively, then $\frac{V_{A}}{V_{B}}$ is

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Suppose a population A has 100 observations 101,102,....,200 and another population B has 100 observations 151,152,.....,250.If VA and VB represent the variances of the two populations, respectively, then VAVB is

The correct option is A 1The variance is independent of change of origin. Therefore, The population A and the population B have the same variance. Hence, VA=VB⟹VAVB=1

Suppose a population $A$ has $100$ observations $101, 102, . . . ., 200$ and another population $B$ has $100$ observations $151, 152, . . . . ., 250$ .
If $V_{A}$ and $V_{B}$ represent the variances of the two populations, respectively, then $\frac{V_{A}}{V_{B}}$ is

The correct option is A $1$
The variance is independent of change of origin. Therefore, The population $A$ and the population $B$ have the same variance.

Hence, $V_{A} = V_{B}$

$⟹ \frac{V_{A}}{V_{B}} = 1$