Suppose f(x) is differentiable at x=1. If f(1)=0 and limh→01hf(1+h)=5, then f′(1) equals
A
6
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
B
5
Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
C
4
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
D
3
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
Open in App
Solution
The correct option is D5 Given that limh→0f(1+h)h=5 When h→0, both the numerator and denominator reduce to 0. Hence the fraction is in 0/0 form. Also given that f(x) is differentiable at x=1. So we can also use L'hopitals rule to find limit. Taking derivative of both denominator and numerator we get, limh→0f(1+h)h=limh→0f′(1+h)1=f′(1) Hence f′(1)=5