The correct option is B q!
(p+1)(p+2)(p+3)...(p+q), ∀ p∈N
Put p=1
(p+1)(p+2)(p+3)...(p+q)=2×3×4×⋯×(q+1)=(q+1)!1!
Similarly, for p=2
(p+1)(p+2)(p+3)...(p+q)
=(q+2)!2!
∴(p+1)(p+2)(p+3)...(p+q)=q!×(p+q)!p! q!=q!×p+qCp
So, it will be divisible by q!
Alternative:
In general, the product of r consecutive integers is divisible by r!
∴(p+1)(p+2)(p+3)...(p+q) is divisible by q!