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Question
The inverse function of f−1(x),if f−1(x) exists is f(x)
The inverse function of f−1(x),if f−1(x) exists is f(x)
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Solution
The correct option is A True
Let’s say we have a function f: A → B then the inverse of this would be defined as f-1 : B → A . Let’s say this function as ‘g’ so f−1(x) = g(x). Now, we can say g is defined on B → A. If we want to define the inverse function on g which is g-1 it’ll be defined on A → B. We can see that this function is nothing but f(x).
True
Let’s say we have a function f: A → B then the inverse of this would be defined as f-1 : B → A . Let’s say this function as ‘g’ so f−1(x) = g(x). Now, we can say g is defined on B → A. If we want to define the inverse function on g which is g-1 it’ll be defined on A → B. We can see that this function is nothing but f(x).
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