wiz-icon
MyQuestionIcon
MyQuestionIcon
1
You visited us 1 times! Enjoying our articles? Unlock Full Access!
Question

The inverse of a function f is only possible if and only if f is surjective.
But the inverse of trigonometric functions like sine , cosine is possible even if they are not surjective. Why so?

Open in App
Solution

Inverse of these function is defined for a particular range and not on whole domain of sinx or cosx.And that is why we always write the domain and range of theseinverse function because inverse exist in these range only.

flag
Suggest Corrections
thumbs-up
0
similar_icon
Similar questions
View More
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
similar_icon
Related Videos
thumbnail
lock
Binary Operations
MATHEMATICS
Watch in App
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
CrossIcon