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Byju's Answer
Standard VIII
Mathematics
Divisibility by 5
The last digi...
Question
The last digit of
∑
1
<
p
<
100
p
!
−
50
∑
n
=
1
(
2
n
)
!
where
p
is a prime number
A
2
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B
4
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C
6
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D
8
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Solution
The correct option is
D
6
The sum is,
2
!
+
3
!
+
4
!
+
5
!
.
.
.
.
.
−
(
2
!
+
4
!
+
6
!
.
.
.
)
After
5
!
the number will have
0
at the one's place, so they will no effect the last digit of the total sum,
Now last digit of
2
!
=
2
,
3
!
=
6
,
4
!
=
4
So, the last digit will be
2
+
6
+
4
−
2
−
4
=
6
Suggest Corrections
0
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