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B
−2
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C
2
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D
−1
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Solution
The correct option is B−2 Given: f(x)=xex ⇒f′(x)=ex(x+1) ⇒f′′(x)=ex(x+1+1)=ex(x+2)
Clearly, the second derivative is zero at x=−2 and also it changes sign at x=−2. Hence it is a point of inflection.