The Statement ~(p↔~q) is
equivalent to p↔q
equivalent to ~p↔q
a tautology
a fallacy
The explanation for the correct option:
Given, ~(p↔~q)
Make a truth table
pq~p~qp↔qp↔~q~p↔q~(p↔~q)TFFTFTTFFTTFFTTFTTFFTFFTFFTTTFFT
Thus, ~(p↔~q) is equivalent to p↔q.
Hence, option (A) is the correct answer.
Complete the table. One has been done for you.
Triangles
corresponding angles
corresponding sides
∆PET and ∆WHO
∠P↔∠W
PE↔WH
∠E↔∠H
ET↔HO
∠T↔∠O
PT↔WO
∆EPT and ∆OHW
For any two statements p and q, the statement ∼(p ∨ q)∨(∼p ∧ q) is equivalent to