Question

The value of $\frac{\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\times \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)+\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)}{\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\times \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\times \left(\frac{3}{2}\right)}$ is half.

• A. 1
• B. False

Answer 1

The correct option is B

False

$\frac{\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\times \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)+\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)}{\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\times \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\times \left(\frac{3}{2}\right)}$
Considering BODMAS, we do multiplication first and then addition.
= $\frac{\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)+\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)}{\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)\times \left(\frac{3}{2}\right)}$
[$\because$ Product of two fractions $\frac{a}{b}$ and $\frac{c}{d}$ is equal to $\frac{a\times c}{b\times d}$]
= $\frac{\left(\frac{3}{4}\right)}{\left(\frac{3}{8}\right)}=2$

Since, the given expression is equal to 2, hence the given statement is false.