Using the property of determinants and without expanding, prove that
∣∣
∣
∣∣1bca(b+c)1cab(c+a)1abc(a+b)∣∣
∣
∣∣=0
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Solution
Let Δ=∣∣
∣
∣∣1bca(b+c)1cab(c+a)1abc(a+b)∣∣
∣
∣∣ =∣∣
∣∣1bcab+ac1cabc+ab1abca+bc∣∣
∣∣ Aplying R1=R1−R2&R2=R2−R3 Δ=∣∣
∣∣0bc−caac−bc0ca−abab−ca1abc(a+b)∣∣
∣∣ Taking (−1 common from C2 we get, Δ=∣∣
∣∣0ac−bcac−bc0ab−caab−ca1−abc(a+b)∣∣
∣∣=0 Since R1 and R2 are same.