Since sine and cosine bring continuous lies in interval [0,π2]
f(x)=sinx+cosx−1
f(0)=0+1−1
f(0)=0
f(π2)=1+0−1
f(π2)=0
f(0)=f(π2)
∴ Rolle's theorem are satisfied
f′(x)=cosx−sinx
So, there must exist some c∈(0,π2) such
that f′(c)=0
f′(c)=cosc−sinc
cosc−sinc=0
cosc=sinc
∴ c=π4
Thus c=π4∈(0,π2)
∴ Rolle's theorem is verified