Which of the following is logically equivalent to $(p \land q)$ ?

p \to\sim q

No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!

\sim p \lor \sim q

No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!

\sim (p \to\sim q)

Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses

\sim (\sim p \land \sim q)

No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!

Open in App

Solution

The correct option is C $\sim (p \to\sim q)$
$\sim (P \to\sim q)$ is logically equivalent to $p \land q$ .
$C$ is correct.

Suggest Corrections

Similar questions

~[(- p)^q] is logically equivalent to

\sim (p \lor q) \lor (\sim p \land q)

\sim (\sim p \Rightarrow q)

\sim (\sim p \Rightarrow q)

∽ [(∽ p) \land q]

Join BYJU'S Learning Program