A-b is always the multiplicative inverse of b-a-

If a=0, then the multiplicative inverse of b/a nbsp; nbsp;is not defined. So, a/b nbsp;is the multiplicative inverse of nbsp;b/a provided a ≠ nbsp;0 ...

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Byju's Answer

Standard VII

Mathematics

Multiplication and Division of Rational Numbers

a/b is always...

Question

$\frac{a}{b}$ is always the multiplicative inverse of $\frac{b}{a}$ .

True

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False

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Solution

The correct option is B
False

If $a = 0$ , then the multiplicative inverse of $\frac{b}{a}$ is not defined. So, $\frac{a}{b}$ is the multiplicative inverse of $\frac{b}{a}$ provided $a \neq 0$ .

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Similar questions

$\frac{a}{b}$ is always the multiplicative inverse of $\frac{b}{a}$ .

Q. Question 55
If

a \neq 0

, the multiplicative inverse of

\frac{a}{b} i s \frac{b}{a}

Q. Question 55
If

a \neq 0

, the multiplicative inverse of

\frac{a}{b} i s \frac{b}{a}

$(a)$ What is the additive inverse of $0$ ?

$(b)$ What is the multiplicative inverse of $1$ ?

$(c)$ Which integers have their own multiplicative inverses?

Given:(x+y+z)×(ab+1)=1

Find the value of z if x is additive inverse of y and a is multiplicative inverse of b.

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ab is always the multiplicative inverse of ba.

The correct option is B False If a=0, then the multiplicative inverse of ba is not defined. So, ab is the multiplicative inverse of ba provided a≠0 .

$\frac{a}{b}$ is always the multiplicative inverse of $\frac{b}{a}$ .

The correct option is B
False

If $a = 0$ , then the multiplicative inverse of $\frac{b}{a}$ is not defined. So, $\frac{a}{b}$ is the multiplicative inverse of $\frac{b}{a}$ provided $a \neq 0$ .